if you can tell me, why did John and Paul lied by proclaiming NO MAN HAS SEEN GOD?
Whereas you said GOD BECAME MAN and live with Men and had seen by multitude of men, remember the 5000 whom Jesus feed? That's lots and lots of men Jason.
Why did they do that for? Hard to answer is it not?
John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time;..."
1 Timothy 6:16 who alone has immortality, dwelling in unapproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see, to whom [be] honor and everlasting power. Amen.
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